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Old 03-20-2009, 02:20 AM   #8
Status: Banned
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 2,001
Originally Posted by Tommycat View Post
Yes, but when you're describing the reasoning behind something you have to use the reason given by the person. Which in the case of Bush and the Republican party, the official reason was states rights(at least according to the RNC newsletter I received at the time).
Which is why I said "US" to give rights. Regardless of if it was the states so called right to create and oppress a minority, those states still answer and are apart of the USA, Bill of Rights, and now this treaty.

Even if we let one state do this, I argue it is still the entire country backing that state up. They are not separate countries and should not be treated as such, and every state has its part in the oppression seeing as only 2 American States allow it thus far.

So, thus, "force the US to give homosexuals equal rights". That could be chopped into "force American States to give homosexuals equal rights" but that seems redundant.
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