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Old 05-14-2005, 09:39 AM   #1
Pho3nix
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"A Jedi shall not know love"

After the OT when Luke disbanded the rule that "Jedi shall not know love" I always wondered how that will turn out? I mean Anakin succumbed to the Darkside because of the fear of loss and his love for Padme. Now, if the Jedi are allowed to have girlfriends, how can Luke stop them from turning to the darkside?

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Old 05-14-2005, 08:00 PM   #2
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You can't blame Anakin's turn to the dark side solely on his relationship with Padme. When he killed all the Tuskens, that wasnt because he loved Padme. His frustration with not advancing quickly enough was not because of Padme. Then you have to consider what saved him in the end, the love of his son. So love does not equal turn to the darkside. Its entirely possible that it was his forbidden love of Padme that influenced his turn to the dark side. Also, the post-ROTJ Jedi could not possibly ban attachment, as they have no means (it seems) of training infants (at least not sufficiently), and thus Jedi would have previous attachments. It makes no logical sense to limit some attachments but not all. Then there is the fact that there are a low number of Jedi, so it is important that the existing Jedi make more little Jedis.


Yeah, you'd think the Emperor had come back to life or something.
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Old 05-15-2005, 12:29 AM   #3
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Out of universe of course this is because Lucas never said anything about the Jedi Order being celibate, or not allowed to love and marry.

As of AOTC, all the EU stuff featuring Jedi with girlfriends, husbands, wives, kids, etc and genetic Force dynasties had to be retconned, so they just said Luke didn't know about the rule and (if and when) he found out that it used to be a rule just changed it.

Was a reason given for him changing the rule? Was he just pulling a Henry VIII and just doing it so he could marry his main squeeze? Or did he find out about it too late and didn't want to break up the marriages of his fellow Jedi?

The question we have to ask ourselves also is... does sexual reproduction actually prepetuate Force Ability?

How come Anakin, who has great force ability, and somebody with none like Padme can have a kid with great potential (like Luke)? Maybe this is just a special case because he's the Chosen One.

Otherwise you'd think the Jedi would have a massive breeding program to make sure they always had people to train and enough staff to protect the galaxy. As it is they are overwhelmed.

Do the deliberately limit themselves because the populance fears a Jedi Order that is too powerful? Maybe they do it for political rather than spiritual reasons...

If Jedi have attachments, family, wealth, etc. they may have divided loyalty to the Republic and be unable to serve it with 100% of their being (or that is the temptation anyway), a similar reason to why some religious groups prohibit marriage for clergy or monks. Freeing themselves from attachments such as these allow them to devote their whole lives to their cause.

I mean what if you have a bunch of kids and they don't want to become Jedi? What if you get a bunch of money, when you die, where does all that money and property go? Do you take funds from the Jedi Order and the Republic and give it to your kids who don't share their parent's ideals?

The whole idea of Jedi being these child-stealers who take kids kicking and screaming from their homes (in-universe propaganda in the EU, courtesy of "HoloNet News") would be easily remedied by a selective breeding program. Have Jedi Mothers and/or Fathers pump out the force brats and you have no problem. Or clone them like the Kaminoeans do if sex is a bad thing. Heck, you could even just do them test tube if cloning is against Jedi ideals or something...

Lots of possibilities, as I see it.


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Old 05-17-2005, 09:10 AM   #4
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Hmm. yes I agree
thx for clearing that up.

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